06 September 2026 CA

Daily CA • 75 Questions

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Question 1 of 75
Consider the following statements regarding India's Q1 FY2026-27 GDP growth:
1. Real GDP growth was 7.8%.
2. The RBI's earlier forecast for the quarter was 7%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Both 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 1 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The reported 7.8% real GDP growth exceeded the RBI's earlier 7% projection. The figures are from the new national-accounts series discussed by The Indian Express and Times of India. The comparison is useful because a forecast is an expectation, whereas the GDP estimate is an observed national-income measure.
Consider the following statements about the proposed census exercise:
1. Census work in four poll-bound states is scheduled to begin on December 1.
2. The announced exercise covers Goa, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and parts of Uttarakhand.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. Both 1 and 2
C. 2 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Registrar General of India announced that the census exercise in the specified areas will begin on December 1 and run into January. The report identifies Goa, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and parts of Uttarakhand. Census administration is handled through the statutory census machinery under the Union government.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's liquidity situation:
1. Banking-system surplus liquidity reached about ₹9.7 lakh crore on September 2.
2. The August daily average surplus was higher than the July daily average.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The Indian Express reported surplus liquidity of about ₹9.7 lakh crore on September 2, while the August daily average was ₹3.67 lakh crore against ₹1.07 lakh crore in July. The rise was linked mainly to foreign-currency inflows and forex operations. Excess liquidity can pull overnight rates below the policy rate.
Consider the following regarding the Supreme Court and teacher education:
1. The Supreme Court upheld NCTE's power to require annual Performance Appraisal Reports from recognised Teacher Education Institutions.
2. The ruling set aside a 2023 Delhi High Court Division Bench decision.
3. NCTE recognition involves prescribed standards for faculty, infrastructure, intake and curriculum.
Which are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The Indian Express reported that the Supreme Court upheld NCTE's power to require annual Performance Appraisal Reports and set aside the 2023 Delhi High Court ruling. Recognised teacher-education institutions must meet prescribed standards covering faculty, infrastructure, student intake, curriculum and practical training.
Consider the following about EOS-05:
1. It is an Earth-observation satellite.
2. It was launched using GSLV-F17.
3. It is designed for a ten-year mission life.
Which are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Indian Express described EOS-05 as an Earth-observation spacecraft launched by GSLV-F17, with a planned ten-year mission life. Its significance lies in frequent imaging of large areas and applications such as disaster monitoring, agriculture and forestry. The launch also demonstrated the GSLV's return to a successful geosynchronous mission.
Consider the following about the recent El Niño assessment:
1. El Niño involves warming of the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2. The Niño 3.4 region is used in monitoring its intensity.
3. El Niño is unrelated to global rainfall variability.
Which are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The WMO-linked assessment reported by The Indian Express describes El Niño as an ocean-atmosphere phenomenon involving equatorial Pacific warming. Niño 3.4 is an important monitoring region, while El Niño can influence rainfall and temperature patterns globally. Hence the third statement is the incorrect one.
Consider the following regarding India's biofortification effort:
1. India released 152 biofortified crop varieties during 2014–2024.
2. Wheat accounted for 53 of these varieties.
3. Rice accounted for 14 varieties.
Which are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Indian Express reported 152 biofortified varieties from India's National Agricultural Research System during 2014–2024, including 53 wheat and 14 rice varieties. Biofortification differs from conventional fortification because nutrient traits are developed in crops before harvest rather than added during food processing.
Consider the following statements about India's recent GDP data:
1. Q1 FY2026-27 real GDP growth was 7.8%.
2. Manufacturing grew 9.2%.
3. Services grew 10%.
4. The RBI had earlier forecast quarterly growth at 8.6%.
Which are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Reported data show 7.8% real GDP growth, manufacturing growth of 9.2% and services growth of 10%. The RBI's earlier forecast was 7%, not 8.6%. The 8.6% figure refers to an upward revision of the previous quarter, not the earlier forecast for the reported quarter.
Consider the following statements about RBI liquidity:
1. Surplus banking liquidity reached about ₹9.7 lakh crore on September 2.
2. The August daily average was ₹3.67 lakh crore.
3. The July daily average was ₹1.07 lakh crore.
4. Excess liquidity can push overnight rates below the repo rate.
Which are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Indian Express reported all four points. The liquidity surge was associated with foreign-currency inflows through the RBI's swap facility and forex operations. A very large surplus can put downward pressure on overnight money-market rates, creating a monetary-policy management challenge.
Consider the following statements about India's recent sovereign-rating action:
1. Japan Credit Rating Agency upgraded India from BBB+ to A-.
2. It raised the country ceiling to A.
3. It cited reforms including GST and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code.
4. It cited a gross NPL ratio of 18% at end-March 2026.
Which are correct?
A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Times of India reported an upgrade from BBB+ to A-, a country ceiling of A and recognition of reforms such as GST and the IBC. The gross NPL ratio cited was 1.8%, not 18%. The rating assessment therefore combined structural reforms, growth and banking-sector improvement.
Consider the following statements about the Delhi bird survey:
1. The Delhi Bird List records 471 species.
2. The atlas covers about 11% of Delhi.
3. Delhi lies near the Central Asian Flyway.
4. The survey found no seasonal difference in bird presence.
Which are correct?
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Indian Express reported 471 species, atlas coverage of about 11% and Delhi's location near the Central Asian Flyway. The survey recorded substantial seasonal variation, including 200 winter species and 152 summer species, so the fourth statement is incorrect.
Assertion (A): India's Q1 FY2026-27 GDP growth exceeded the RBI's earlier projection.
Reason (R): The reported 7.8% growth was above the RBI's 7% forecast.
A. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The two propositions describe the same comparison: the reported GDP growth of 7.8% was above the RBI's earlier 7% projection. The reason directly establishes the assertion rather than merely being an associated fact.
Assertion (A): The RBI faced a monetary-policy challenge from excess liquidity in early September 2026.
Reason (R): Surplus liquidity can push overnight market rates below the repo rate.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The Indian Express explained that surplus liquidity had reached a four-year high and could pull overnight money-market rates below the repo rate. This creates a transmission and liquidity-management issue for the central bank, so the reason directly explains the assertion.
Assertion (A): The Supreme Court's recent teacher-education ruling strengthened NCTE's regulatory position.
Reason (R): The Court upheld NCTE's requirement that recognised Teacher Education Institutions file annual Performance Appraisal Reports.
A. A is true, but R is false.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
D. A is false, but R is true.
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The Court upheld the NCTE's authority to require annual Performance Appraisal Reports, reversing the contrary 2023 Delhi High Court ruling. The reporting requirement is therefore a concrete basis for describing the judgment as reinforcing NCTE's regulatory role.
Assertion (A): Biofortification can be considered a pre-harvest nutrition intervention.
Reason (R): It develops nutrient-rich crop varieties rather than adding nutrients during food processing.
A. A is false, but R is true.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Indian Express distinction is clear: fortification adds nutrients during processing, while biofortification develops nutrient-rich crops through breeding or related methods before harvest. The reason therefore explains why biofortification is described as a pre-harvest approach.
Match List I with List II:

List I
A. EOS-05
B. NCTE
C. NPCI
D. JCRA

List II
1. Teacher-education regulator
2. Sovereign credit rating
3. Earth-observation satellite
4. Retail-payments infrastructure

Select the correct code.
A. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
B. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
C. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
D. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Answer: A
Explanation:
• EOS-05 is an Earth-observation satellite; NCTE regulates teacher education; NPCI operates major retail-payment infrastructure; and JCRA issued the sovereign-rating action. The institutional matching also prevents confusing NCTE with UGC or JCRA with a multilateral lender.
Match List I with List II:

List I
A. RBI liquidity
B. El Niño
C. Biofortification
D. Form 7

List II
1. Electoral-roll deletion process
2. Equatorial Pacific warming
3. Nutrient-rich crop development
4. Banking-system surplus funds

Select the correct code.
A. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
B. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
C. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
D. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The four concepts correspond respectively to surplus banking liquidity, equatorial Pacific warming, crop-level nutritional enhancement and the electoral-roll deletion process. The pairings are based on distinct news stories reported around September 5–6.
Match the following figures with the relevant item:

A. 7.8%
B. 9.2%
C. 10%
D. 1.8%

1. Services growth
2. Gross NPL ratio
3. Real GDP growth
4. Manufacturing growth

Select the correct code.
A. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
B. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
C. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
D. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The figures come from separate but contemporaneous reports: 7.8% was headline real GDP growth, 9.2% manufacturing growth, 10% services growth, and 1.8% the banking-sector gross NPL ratio cited by JCRA. Mixing these figures across categories is a common current-affairs error.
Match List I with List II:

A. Kitchener Lake
B. Saraswati Bhavan
C. Najafgarh Lake
D. SRCC

1. Mumbai fire
2. Delhi water-quality issue
3. Delhi bird sighting
4. Centenary event

Select the correct code.
A. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
B. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
C. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
D. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The Indian Express linked Kitchener Lake with a Delhi water-quality dispute, Saraswati Bhavan with the Mumbai fire, Najafgarh Lake with the rare Sharp-tailed Sandpiper sighting, and SRCC with its centenary event. The locations are distinct and should not be conflated.
Match the following institutions with the subject of the report:

A. Registrar General of India
B. Supreme Court
C. NCTE
D. DPCC

1. Census exercise
2. Teacher-education regulation
3. Water-quality assessment in Delhi
4. Judicial decision on NCTE reporting requirement

Select the correct code.
A. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
B. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
C. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
D. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The Registrar General of India announced the census schedule; the Supreme Court delivered the ruling; NCTE is the regulator whose requirement was litigated; and DPCC assessed Kitchener Lake. The pairing separates the judicial authority from the regulatory authority involved in the same teacher-education story.
Consider the following pairs:
1. GSLV-F17 — EOS-05
2. NCTE — Teacher Education Institutions
3. JCRA — India sovereign rating
4. DPCC — Kitchener Lake assessment

How many pairs are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. All four
C. Only three
D. Only two
Answer: B
Explanation:
• All four pairs are correctly matched in the September 5–6 reporting. GSLV-F17 carried EOS-05; NCTE regulates teacher-education institutions; JCRA issued the sovereign-rating decision; and DPCC's assessment led to the Kitchener Lake issue being taken up by the NGT.
Consider the following pairs:
1. 24.51 billion — August UPI volume
2. ₹29.82 lakh crore — August UPI value
3. 23.66 billion — July UPI volume
4. 19.63 billion — August 2025 UPI volume

How many pairs are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All four
D. Only three
Answer: C
Explanation:
• NPCI figures reported by Times of India support all four pairings. August 2026 volume reached 24.51 billion and value ₹29.82 lakh crore; July volume was 23.66 billion and August 2025 volume 19.63 billion. Volume and value should be kept conceptually separate.
Consider the following pairs:
1. El Niño — Equatorial Pacific
2. Niño 3.4 — ENSO monitoring region
3. Biofortification — Pre-harvest crop development
4. Fortification — Addition of nutrients during processing

How many pairs are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Answer: D
Explanation:
• All four are correctly matched. The recent climate report used the equatorial Pacific and Niño 3.4 in discussing El Niño, while the Indian Express nutrition explainer distinguished biofortification from processing-stage fortification. The distinction is central to understanding the reported policy interventions.
Consider the following pairs:
1. Article 142 — Supreme Court's complete-justice power
2. Form 7 — Electoral-roll deletion application
3. RGI — Census administration
4. NCTE — Annual Performance Appraisal Reports for recognised TEIs

How many are correctly matched?
A. All four
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. Only one
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The Indian Express reports support all four pairings. Article 142 was discussed in relation to the Supreme Court's power to do complete justice; Form 7 is relevant to electoral-roll deletion; the Registrar General handles census machinery; and NCTE's annual reporting requirement was upheld.
Consider the following pairs:
1. Jhiram Ghati — Chhattisgarh
2. Pir Panjal — Jammu and Kashmir
3. Najafgarh Lake — Delhi
4. Kajiado County — Kenya

How many are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. All four
C. Only three
D. Only two
Answer: B
Explanation:
• All four locations are correctly associated with the reported stories. Jhiram Ghati is in Bastar, Chhattisgarh; the Pir Panjal operation was in Jammu and Kashmir; Najafgarh Lake is in the Delhi region; and Tata Chemicals Magadi's dispute is located in Kajiado County, Kenya.
The following figures were reported for India's Q1 FY2026-27 economy:

| Indicator | Figure |
|---|---:|
| Real GDP growth | 7.8% |
| Manufacturing growth | 9.2% |
| Services growth | 10% |
| RBI forecast | 7% |

Which conclusion follows directly from the data?
A. Services contracted despite positive GDP growth.
B. Manufacturing grew faster than services and headline growth missed the forecast.
C. Services grew faster than manufacturing and headline growth exceeded the RBI forecast.
D. Headline GDP growth exactly matched the RBI forecast.
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The table shows services growth at 10%, above manufacturing's 9.2%, while 7.8% headline growth exceeded the RBI's earlier 7% forecast. The figures therefore support only the first conclusion.
A liquidity report gave the following figures:

| Measure | Figure |
|---|---:|
| Surplus liquidity on September 2 | ₹9.7 lakh crore |
| August daily average | ₹3.67 lakh crore |
| July daily average | ₹1.07 lakh crore |
| Potential year-end core liquidity | ₹13–14 lakh crore |

What is the principal monetary-policy concern highlighted by these numbers?
A. The RBI can no longer conduct open-market operations.
B. The banking system has become permanently illiquid.
C. The figures indicate a collapse in foreign-currency inflows.
D. Excess liquidity may weaken the transmission of the policy rate to overnight money-market rates.
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Indian Express linked the liquidity surge to foreign-currency inflows and forex operations. Very large surplus liquidity can pull overnight rates below the repo rate and complicate monetary-policy transmission. The figures do not indicate a banking-system liquidity shortage.
The following Delhi bird-survey figures were reported:

| Measure | Figure |
|---|---:|
| Species on Delhi Bird List | 471 |
| Atlas coverage | About 11% |
| Winter species | 200 |
| Summer species | 152 |

Which inference is most appropriate?
A. The survey indicates both substantial recorded diversity and seasonal variation in observed species.
B. Delhi has only 152 bird species in total.
C. The atlas covers the entire National Capital Territory.
D. The 471 species were all recorded during summer.
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The figures indicate a large recorded species list but also seasonal variation, with more species reported in winter than summer. The atlas is a limited sample covering about 11%, so the data cannot be used to claim that all 471 species were observed in one season or across the entire territory.
A regulator requires recognised teacher-education institutions to submit annual performance reports, and the Supreme Court upholds that requirement after earlier litigation. What is the most appropriate institutional inference?
A. The Supreme Court has abolished NCTE recognition.
B. NCTE's regulatory authority over recognised teacher-education institutions has been judicially affirmed.
C. Teacher education is regulated exclusively by state universities.
D. Annual reporting is unrelated to institutional recognition.
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Indian Express reported that the Supreme Court upheld NCTE's power to require annual Performance Appraisal Reports and set aside the contrary 2023 Delhi High Court ruling. Recognition of teacher-education institutions remains linked to compliance with prescribed standards.
A central bank receives large foreign-currency inflows and simultaneously sees banking-system surplus liquidity rise sharply. Which response best explains the policy dilemma?
A. The situation necessarily indicates a shortage of bank deposits.
B. The inflows automatically eliminate all inflation risks.
C. The central bank may need to absorb rupee liquidity while managing exchange-rate and monetary-policy objectives.
D. Foreign-currency inflows have no effect on domestic rupee liquidity.
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The Indian Express explained that foreign-currency inflows associated with the RBI's swap facility and forex operations can inject rupee liquidity into the banking system. If the surplus becomes excessive, the central bank must manage liquidity without undermining other monetary and exchange-rate objectives.
A district administration finds that a lake still fails BOD, COD and faecal-coliform standards despite spending ₹36 lakh on cleaning. Which institutional response was reported?
A. The NCTE withdrew recognition from local colleges.
B. The RBI ordered a monetary-policy review.
C. The Election Commission ordered a fresh electoral roll.
D. The National Green Tribunal sought an explanation from the DDA.
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Indian Express reported that Kitchener Lake in Delhi continued to fail prescribed water-quality norms despite ₹36 lakh spent on cleaning, prompting the NGT to seek an explanation from the DDA. BOD, COD and faecal coliform are water-quality indicators, not monetary or electoral measures.
A company seeks to use a disputed AI-generated artwork as the basis for a copyright claim. What position did the Copyright Office reportedly take?
A. It ruled that AI-generated works can never be original.
B. It recognised every AI system as a legal author.
C. It recognised the work as original but did not recognise the AI itself as the author.
D. It transferred copyright authority from the Copyright Office to NCTE.
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The Indian Express reported that the Copyright Office recognised the AI-generated artwork as original but did not recognise the AI system itself as its author. The issue highlights the distinction between originality of a work and legal authorship under copyright law.
What was the headline real GDP growth reported for India in Q1 FY2026-27?
A. 7.8%
B. 6.7%
C. 8.6%
D. 7.0%
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The reported Q1 real GDP growth was 7.8%. The 6.7% figure relates to the RBI's full-year projection, 8.6% to an upward revision of the previous quarter, and 7% to the earlier RBI quarterly forecast.
Which ministry is associated with the official GDP estimates discussed in the recent reports?
A. Ministry of Finance
B. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
C. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
D. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Answer: B
Explanation:
• MoSPI is the Union ministry responsible for the official national-accounts statistics discussed in the GDP reports. The Finance Ministry frames fiscal policy, while Commerce handles trade policy and Corporate Affairs administers company-law matters.
What does real GDP growth primarily measure?
A. Growth in exports alone
B. Growth in government tax collections only
C. Change in the stock-market capitalisation of listed companies
D. Growth in the volume of final goods and services after adjusting for price changes
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Real GDP removes the effect of price changes to capture changes in the volume of final output. The recent 7.8% figure was reported as real GDP growth, so it should not be interpreted as a simple measure of inflation or stock-market performance.
Which sector recorded 10% growth in the reported Q1 FY2026-27 data?
A. Services
B. Manufacturing
C. Agriculture
D. Construction only
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Services grew 10% in the reported quarter, above manufacturing's 9.2%. The distinction matters because headline GDP growth reflects contributions from multiple sectors rather than a single industrial component.
What was the manufacturing growth rate reported for Q1 FY2026-27?
A. 10.0%
B. 9.2%
C. 7.8%
D. 6.7%
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Manufacturing growth was reported at 9.2%. The 10% figure belongs to services, while 7.8% is headline real GDP growth. Separating sectoral growth from aggregate growth is essential when reading national-accounts data.
Which institution issued the sovereign-rating upgrade that moved India from BBB+ to A-?
A. World Bank
B. Moody's Ratings
C. Japan Credit Rating Agency
D. Asian Development Bank
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Japan Credit Rating Agency upgraded India's sovereign rating from BBB+ to A-. It is a private credit-rating agency, unlike the World Bank and Asian Development Bank, which are multilateral development institutions.
What new sovereign rating did JCRA assign to India?
A. BBB
B. A
C. BBB+
D. A-
Answer: D
Explanation:
• JCRA raised India's sovereign rating to A- from BBB+. The country ceiling was separately raised to A, so those two ratings should not be confused.
What country ceiling did JCRA assign to India after the recent action?
A. A
B. A-
C. BBB+
D. AA-
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The country ceiling was raised to A, while the sovereign rating was raised to A-. A country ceiling is a separate rating constraint reflecting transfer and convertibility considerations.
Which banking-sector indicator cited by JCRA was 1.8% at end-March 2026?
A. Capital adequacy ratio
B. Gross non-performing loan ratio
C. Cash reserve ratio
D. Statutory liquidity ratio
Answer: B
Explanation:
• JCRA cited a gross NPL ratio of 1.8% at end-March 2026 as part of its assessment of banking-sector improvement. CRR and SLR are regulatory liquidity requirements, not NPL measures.
Which reform was specifically cited by JCRA as strengthening India's economic foundations?
A. Right to Education Act
B. Forest Rights Act
C. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code
D. National Food Security Act
Answer: C
Explanation:
• JCRA cited structural reforms including GST and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. The IBC is relevant because it provides a formal framework for resolving insolvency and improving creditor recovery.
What was the main source of the recent surge in RBI-linked banking-system liquidity?
A. A ban on government securities
B. A collapse in bank deposits
C. A sharp fall in currency in circulation
D. Foreign-currency inflows and foreign-exchange operations
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Indian Express linked the liquidity surge to foreign-currency inflows through the RBI's dollar-rupee swap facility and related forex operations. These transactions can increase rupee liquidity unless subsequently sterilised or absorbed.
Why can excessive surplus liquidity push overnight money-market rates below the repo rate?
A. Banks have abundant funds and less need to borrow at the policy rate
B. Banks become legally prohibited from borrowing
C. The repo rate automatically falls to zero
D. Foreign exchange reserves cease to exist
Answer: A
Explanation:
• When banks have abundant surplus funds, their demand for overnight borrowing falls, putting downward pressure on money-market rates. The repo rate remains the policy reference rate, so the issue concerns transmission rather than automatic abolition of the policy rate.
What was the reported banking-system surplus liquidity on September 2, 2026?
A. About ₹3.67 lakh crore
B. About ₹9.7 lakh crore
C. About ₹1.07 lakh crore
D. About ₹13–14 lakh crore
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Indian Express reported approximately ₹9.7 lakh crore of surplus liquidity on September 2. The other figures refer to different averages or projected year-end liquidity and therefore should not be substituted.
What was the August 2026 daily average of surplus liquidity?
A. ₹1.07 lakh crore
B. ₹9.7 lakh crore
C. ₹3.67 lakh crore
D. ₹13 lakh crore
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The August daily average was reported at ₹3.67 lakh crore, compared with ₹1.07 lakh crore in July. The ₹9.7 lakh crore figure refers to the September 2 level rather than the August average.
What was the July 2026 daily average of surplus liquidity?
A. ₹13–14 lakh crore
B. ₹3.67 lakh crore
C. ₹9.7 lakh crore
D. ₹1.07 lakh crore
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The July daily average was ₹1.07 lakh crore. It rose to ₹3.67 lakh crore in August, illustrating the rapid build-up in banking-system surplus funds.
What is the principal monetary-policy significance of excess banking liquidity?
A. It can weaken the alignment between market rates and the policy rate
B. It directly determines the fiscal deficit
C. It fixes the exchange rate permanently
D. It eliminates the need for monetary policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Excess liquidity can push overnight rates below the repo rate, complicating monetary-policy transmission. It does not determine the fiscal deficit or permanently fix the exchange rate.
What was the August 2026 UPI transaction volume reported by NPCI?
A. 19.63 billion
B. 23.66 billion
C. 24.51 billion
D. 29.82 billion
Answer: C
Explanation:
• NPCI data reported by Times of India put August 2026 UPI transaction volume at 24.51 billion. The other figures represent July volume, August 2025 volume and August value respectively.
What was the value of UPI transactions in August 2026?
A. ₹24.51 lakh crore
B. ₹29.82 lakh crore
C. ₹23.66 lakh crore
D. ₹19.63 lakh crore
Answer: B
Explanation:
• August UPI transaction value was ₹29.82 lakh crore. Transaction volume was 24.51 billion, so the two figures measure different dimensions of payment-system activity.
Which organisation operates the UPI infrastructure?
A. NITI Aayog
B. Reserve Bank of India alone
C. Securities and Exchange Board of India
D. National Payments Corporation of India
Answer: D
Explanation:
• NPCI operates major retail-payment infrastructure including UPI. RBI regulates the payment system and provides the broader statutory and policy framework, but UPI is operated by NPCI.
What is the key difference between UPI transaction volume and transaction value?
A. Volume counts transactions, while value measures their aggregate monetary amount
B. Volume measures rupees, while value counts users
C. Both are identical measures
D. Volume measures bank deposits and value measures exports
Answer: A
Explanation:
• UPI volume counts the number of transactions, whereas value aggregates the money transferred. The August figures illustrate why a rise in transaction frequency does not automatically imply an identical percentage change in monetary value.
What is the primary purpose of an Earth-observation satellite such as EOS-05?
A. Providing only intercontinental telephone calls
B. Collecting information about Earth's surface and environment
C. Generating electricity for terrestrial grids
D. Replacing navigation satellites in all applications
Answer: B
Explanation:
• EOS-05 is an Earth-observation mission intended to image large areas for uses including disaster monitoring, agriculture and forestry. Earth observation differs from navigation and communications missions in its principal payload and applications.
Which launch vehicle carried EOS-05?
A. SSLV-D4
B. PSLV-C61
C. GSLV-F17
D. LVM3-M5
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The Indian Express reported EOS-05 as the payload of GSLV-F17. The mission was notable because it involved a geosynchronous Earth-observation satellite and a successful GSLV flight.
What was the planned mission life of EOS-05?
A. Fifteen years
B. Two years
C. Five years
D. Ten years
Answer: D
Explanation:
• EOS-05 was designed for a ten-year mission life. Mission life refers to the planned operational period of the spacecraft, not the time taken to reach orbit.
What is the main advantage of a geosynchronous Earth-observation orbit in the reported EOS-05 context?
A. Frequent imaging of large areas from a high-altitude vantage point
B. Continuous navigation for submarines
C. Global internet coverage from low orbit
D. Direct communication with only polar stations
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The reported mission uses a higher geosynchronous orbit to support frequent imaging over large areas. This is distinct from low-Earth observation satellites, which generally provide higher spatial resolution but different revisit characteristics.
Which application was specifically associated with EOS-05?
A. Determining income-tax liabilities
B. Natural-disaster monitoring
C. Issuing passports
D. Managing bank reserves
Answer: B
Explanation:
• EOS-05's Earth-observation capability supports applications such as natural-disaster monitoring, agriculture and forestry. The other options belong to administrative or financial systems unrelated to satellite imaging.
What does El Niño primarily involve?
A. Warming of the Indian Ocean alone
B. Cooling of the Arctic Ocean only
C. Abnormal warming of the central and eastern tropical Pacific
D. A reversal of Earth's rotation
Answer: C
Explanation:
• El Niño involves unusual warming of the tropical Pacific and coupled atmospheric changes. Its global significance comes from teleconnections that can alter rainfall and temperature patterns far beyond the Pacific.
Which region is central to monitoring ENSO intensity in the recent report?
A. Bay of Bengal
B. Arabian Sea
C. North Atlantic
D. Niño 3.4
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Niño 3.4 region is a standard ENSO monitoring area in the tropical Pacific. It is distinct from the Indian Ocean regions often discussed in connection with the Indian monsoon.
Why can El Niño matter for Indian agriculture?
A. It can influence monsoon-related rainfall patterns
B. It directly fixes minimum support prices
C. It determines fertiliser subsidy rates
D. It changes India's land boundaries
Answer: A
Explanation:
• El Niño can affect large-scale atmospheric circulation and monsoon behaviour, creating agricultural risk. It is not a direct determinant of prices, subsidies or territorial boundaries.
What is the core distinction between fortification and biofortification?
A. Fortification occurs only through genetic breeding
B. Fortification adds nutrients during processing, while biofortification develops nutrient-rich crops before harvest
C. Biofortification is simply vitamin supplementation after cooking
D. Both terms mean the same thing
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Indian Express nutrition explainer distinguished the two approaches by timing and mechanism. Fortification generally occurs during processing; biofortification develops nutrient traits in crops before harvest through breeding or related methods.
Which crop had the largest number of biofortified varieties in the reported 2014–2024 record?
A. Maize
B. Rice
C. Wheat
D. Millet
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Wheat accounted for 53 of the 152 biofortified varieties reported for 2014–2024, more than millet, maize or rice in the cited summary. The figure reflects variety development, not crop production volume.
How many biofortified wheat varieties were reported for 2014–2024?
A. 14
B. 26
C. 24
D. 53
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Indian Express reported 53 wheat varieties, alongside 26 millet, 24 maize and 14 rice varieties. These are counts of varieties released, not tonnage or acreage.
How many biofortified rice varieties were reported for 2014–2024?
A. 14
B. 53
C. 26
D. 24
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Rice accounted for 14 varieties in the reported biofortification summary. Wheat had 53, millet 26 and maize 24, so the rice figure should not be confused with the much larger wheat count.
What is meant by 'hidden hunger' in nutrition policy?
A. Complete absence of food
B. Micronutrient deficiency despite adequate or near-adequate calorie intake
C. Only protein deficiency in children
D. Temporary hunger caused by drought
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Hidden hunger refers mainly to micronutrient deficiencies that may exist even when calorie intake is adequate. The concept explains why food quantity alone does not guarantee nutritional security.
Which institution regulates recognised Teacher Education Institutions in the reported Supreme Court case?
A. National Medical Commission
B. University Grants Commission
C. National Council for Teacher Education
D. All India Council for Technical Education
Answer: C
Explanation:
• NCTE is the specialised statutory regulator for teacher education. The Supreme Court case concerned NCTE's requirement that recognised Teacher Education Institutions submit annual Performance Appraisal Reports.
What did the Supreme Court uphold regarding recognised Teacher Education Institutions?
A. Exclusive regulation by state governments
B. Automatic recognition without inspection
C. A ban on teacher-education colleges
D. NCTE's power to require annual Performance Appraisal Reports
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Supreme Court upheld NCTE's authority to require annual Performance Appraisal Reports and set aside the 2023 Delhi High Court decision that had invalidated the requirement.
What is the main function of an annual Performance Appraisal Report for a Teacher Education Institution?
A. It provides a regulatory mechanism for assessing continued compliance and performance
B. It fixes teacher salaries nationally
C. It determines university entrance ranks
D. It replaces all practical training
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The reporting requirement forms part of NCTE's regulatory oversight of recognised institutions. It is connected with standards and compliance rather than salary fixation or university entrance examinations.
What does Article 142 of the Constitution empower the Supreme Court to do?
A. Suspend all fundamental rights indefinitely
B. Amend the Constitution without Parliament
C. Appoint every High Court judge directly
D. Pass orders necessary for doing complete justice in matters before it
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Article 142 gives the Supreme Court a special power to pass orders necessary for doing complete justice in a matter pending before it. The Indian Express recently discussed the provision in connection with a Supreme Court order.
What is Form 7 associated with in the recent electoral-roll reporting?
A. Registration of a political party
B. Application related to deletion of a name from an electoral roll
C. Nomination of a candidate for Parliament
D. Appointment of an Election Commissioner
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Form 7 is used in the electoral-roll process for seeking deletion of a name. The Indian Express discussion stressed that submission of such an application does not itself replace the statutory inquiry and decision by the Electoral Registration Officer.
Who has the statutory power to order correction or deletion under Section 22 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950?
A. District Magistrate in every case
B. Booth Level Officer
C. Electoral Registration Officer
D. Returning Officer only
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The Electoral Registration Officer exercises the statutory powers under Section 22, subject to the prescribed process. Booth Level Officers assist with field-level electoral work but do not become the final statutory decision-maker simply because they verify facts.
What is the Central Asian Flyway relevant to the Delhi bird story?
A. A major migratory route used by many birds
B. A river basin in central India
C. A railway freight corridor
D. A Himalayan tunnel network
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Delhi's location near the Central Asian Flyway helps explain its importance for migratory birds. Flyways are broad ecological migration routes rather than physical transport corridors.
Which combination correctly identifies the subject of the recent Indian Express stories?
A. EOS-05 — monetary policy; Kitchener Lake — census; NCTE — space regulation
B. EOS-05 — Earth observation; Kitchener Lake — water quality; NCTE — teacher education
C. EOS-05 — election law; Kitchener Lake — defence; NCTE — banking
D. EOS-05 — agriculture pricing; Kitchener Lake — foreign exchange; NCTE — aviation
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The three pairings reflect separate recent stories: EOS-05 concerned Earth observation, Kitchener Lake concerned water quality, and NCTE concerned regulation of teacher-education institutions. The other combinations deliberately cross unrelated policy domains.
Which combination best describes the common economic issue in the recent GDP, liquidity and sovereign-rating reports?
A. All three reports concerned only merchandise exports
B. All three reports measured only inflation
C. Macroeconomic performance was being assessed through output growth, monetary conditions and sovereign creditworthiness
D. All three reports were assessments of agricultural production
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The reports covered different dimensions of macroeconomic health: GDP measured output, liquidity reflected monetary conditions, and JCRA assessed sovereign creditworthiness. Treating them as identical indicators would obscure the different questions each measure answers.
Which of the following best captures why current-affairs questions often require distinguishing an institution's regulator role from an operator role?
A. Regulators and operators are always the same organisation
B. Every government institution performs identical functions
C. Only private companies can operate public infrastructure
D. Different institutions can share a sector while exercising different statutory or operational functions
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The recent stories illustrate the distinction: NCTE regulates teacher education, NPCI operates payment infrastructure, IN-SPACe authorises and promotes private space activity, and RBI regulates monetary and financial conditions. Accurate role identification prevents institutional mix-ups in exam questions.

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